List of 100 MCQs from Pharmacology – III for Practice with Answers

 

List of 100 MCQs from Pharmacology-III for Practice with Answers

Unit-1: Drugs Acting on GIT (Q1–25)

1. Which H₂ blocker has maximum drug interaction potential?
   A. Famotidine
   B. Ranitidine
   C. Cimetidine
   D. Nizatidine
2. Proton pump inhibitors are prodrugs activated in:
   A. Blood
   B. Liver
   C. Acidic canaliculi
   D. Intestine
3. Aluminium hydroxide commonly causes:
   A. Diarrhea
   B. Constipation
   C. Acid rebound
   D. Hypercalcemia
4. Magnesium trisilicate acts mainly by:
   A. Neutralizing acid
   B. Adsorbing pepsin
   C. Reducing motility
   D. Forming gel
5. Sucralfate is best administered:
   A. With meals
   B. After meals
   C. Before meals
   D. At bedtime only
6. Drug used for opioid-induced constipation:
   A. Senna
   B. Lactulose
   C. Methylnaltrexone
   D. Ispaghula
7. Tegaserod is useful in:
   A. IBS-D
   B. IBS-C
   C. Peptic ulcer
   D. GERD
8. Diphenoxylate should be combined with atropine to:
   A. Increase efficacy
   B. Prevent abuse
   C. Reduce constipation
   D. Enhance absorption
9. Codeine reduces diarrhea by:
   A. Antisecretory effect
   B. Increasing absorption
   C. Decreasing motility
   D. Killing bacteria
10. Drug acting on vomiting center directly:
    A. Ondansetron
    B. Metoclopramide
    C. Apomorphine
    D. Hyoscine
11. Antiemetic useful in motion sickness:
    A. Metoclopramide
    B. Ondansetron
    C. Hyoscine
    D. Domperidone
12. Prochlorperazine blocks:
    A. H1 receptor
    B. D2 receptor
    C. M receptor
    D. 5-HT4 receptor
13. Domperidone causes hyperprolactinemia by blocking:
    A. H1
    B. D2
    C. M3
    D. 5-HT3
14. Cisapride was withdrawn due to:
    A. Hepatotoxicity
    B. Cardiac arrhythmia
    C. Renal failure
    D. CNS toxicity
15. Antispasmodic with PDE inhibition:
    A. Dicyclomine
    B. Drotaverine
    C. Hyoscine
    D. Propantheline
16. Drug reducing acid secretion by M1 blockade:
    A. Pirenzepine
    B. Atropine
    C. Ranitidine
    D. Famotidine
17. Antacid contraindicated in renal failure:
    A. Aluminium hydroxide
    B. Magnesium hydroxide
    C. Calcium carbonate
    D. Sodium bicarbonate
18. Colloidal bismuth subcitrate adverse effect:
    A. Black stools
    B. Constipation
    C. Diarrhea
    D. Hypocalcemia
19. ORS works by enhancing absorption of:
    A. Sodium and glucose
    B. Potassium only
    C. Chloride only
    D. Water only
20. Zinc reduces diarrhea by improving:
    A. Appetite
    B. Immunity
    C. Mucosal healing
    D. Motility
21. Appetite suppressant example:
    A. Cyproheptadine
    B. Lorcaserin
    C. Metoclopramide
    D. Ondansetron
22. Antacid with CO₂ release:
    A. Aluminium hydroxide
    B. Magnesium hydroxide
    C. Sodium bicarbonate
    D. Magaldrate
23. Lubricant laxative works by:
    A. Increasing water retention
    B. Softening stool
    C. Stimulating colon
    D. Increasing bulk
24. Bulk laxatives are contraindicated in:
    A. IBS
    B. Intestinal obstruction
    C. Pregnancy
    D. Diabetes
25. Probiotics are useful in diarrhea caused by:
    A. Viruses
    B. Antibiotics
    C. Parasites
    D. Food poisoning

Unit-2: Endocrine Drugs (Q26–45)

26. Hormone regulating calcium homeostasis:
    A. Thyroxine
    B. Calcitonin
    C. Cortisol
    D. Aldosterone
27. Vitamin D increases absorption of:
    A. Sodium
    B. Potassium
    C. Calcium
    D. Chloride
28. PTU differs from carbimazole by inhibiting:
    A. Iodide uptake
    B. Hormone release
    C. Peripheral T4 to T3 conversion
    D. Thyroid destruction
29. Drug used in thyroid storm:
    A. Carbimazole
    B. PTU
    C. Levothyroxine
    D. Radioiodine
30. Sulfonylureas require functioning:
    A. Liver
    B. Kidney
    C. β-cells
    D. Muscle
31. Metformin causes lactic acidosis in:
    A. Liver disease
    B. Renal failure
    C. Heart failure
    D. All of the above
32. Acarbose adverse effect:
    A. Hypoglycemia
    B. Flatulence
    C. Weight gain
    D. Edema
33. DPP-4 inhibitors do NOT cause:
    A. Hypoglycemia
    B. Weight neutrality
    C. Increased insulin
    D. Reduced glucagon
34. Thiazolidinediones cause:
    A. Weight loss
    B. Fluid retention
    C. Hypoglycemia
    D. GI upset
35. Corticosteroids act via:
    A. Membrane receptors
    B. Nuclear receptors
    C. Ion channels
    D. Enzyme inhibition
36. Mineralocorticoid adverse effect:
    A. Hyperkalemia
    B. Hyponatremia
    C. Hypertension
    D. Hypotension
37. Long-term steroid therapy should be stopped:
    A. Abruptly
    B. Gradually
    C. After meals
    D. At night
38. Drug used for preterm labor suppression:
    A. Oxytocin
    B. Ergometrine
    C. Salbutamol
    D. Misoprostol
39. Ergometrine causes:
    A. Uterine relaxation
    B. Sustained contraction
    C. Cervical dilation
    D. Uterine atony
40. Progesterone helps in pregnancy by:
    A. Contracting uterus
    B. Relaxing uterus
    C. Increasing oxytocin
    D. Reducing estrogen
41. ACTH deficiency causes:
    A. Hyperglycemia
    B. Hypotension
    C. Obesity
    D. Cushing syndrome
42. Repaglinide has shorter action than:
    A. Metformin
    B. Sulfonylureas
    C. Acarbose
    D. Pioglitazone
43. Insulin sensitizer drug:
    A. Glimepiride
    B. Metformin
    C. Acarbose
    D. Sitagliptin
44. Corticosteroids suppress immunity by:
    A. Increasing antibodies
    B. Inhibiting cytokines
    C. Increasing macrophages
    D. Enhancing T-cells
45. Drug causing adrenal suppression:
    A. Hydrocortisone
    B. Dexamethasone
    C. Fludrocortisone
    D. Aldosterone

Unit-3: Antimicrobials (Q46–85)

46. Antibiotic resistance due to altered target site occurs in:
    A. MRSA
    B. E. coli
    C. Pseudomonas
    D. Klebsiella
47. Penicillin allergy is mediated by:
    A. IgG
    B. IgE
    C. IgM
    D. IgA
48. Piperacillin is effective against:
    A. Streptococcus
    B. Pseudomonas
    C. Mycoplasma
    D. Chlamydia
49. Third generation cephalosporins penetrate:
    A. Liver
    B. Kidney
    C. CSF
    D. Bone
50. Ceftriaxone is eliminated mainly by:
    A. Kidney
    B. Liver
    C. Lungs
    D. Skin
51. Imipenem is combined with cilastatin to prevent:
    A. Resistance
    B. Nephrotoxicity
    C. Degradation
    D. Allergy
52. Doxycycline advantage over tetracycline:
    A. Better renal safety
    B. More GI upset
    C. Shorter half-life
    D. Less absorption
53. Aminoglycosides are ineffective against:
    A. Aerobes
    B. Anaerobes
    C. Gram negatives
    D. Mycobacteria
54. Vancomycin is drug of choice for:
    A. MRSA
    B. TB
    C. Syphilis
    D. Malaria
55. Linezolid acts by inhibiting:
    A. DNA synthesis
    B. Protein initiation
    C. Cell wall synthesis
    D. RNA polymerase
56. Quinolones are contraindicated in children due to:
    A. CNS toxicity
    B. Tendon damage
    C. Cartilage damage
    D. Hepatotoxicity
57. Antitubercular drug causing hepatotoxicity:
    A. Ethambutol
    B. Rifampicin
    C. Streptomycin
    D. Cycloserine
58. Cycloserine adverse effect:
    A. Nephrotoxicity
    B. Psychosis
    C. Optic neuritis
    D. Deafness
59. Drug causing orange discoloration of body fluids:
    A. INH
    B. Rifampicin
    C. PAS
    D. Ethambutol
60. Leprosy reaction type-2 is treated with:
    A. Dapsone
    B. Clofazimine
    C. Thalidomide
    D. Rifampicin
61. Pyrantel pamoate acts by:
    A. Paralysis of worms
    B. Killing eggs
    C. Blocking glucose uptake
    D. Increasing motility
62. Drug of choice for hookworm:
    A. Albendazole
    B. Niclosamide
    C. Praziquantel
    D. Piperazine
63. Metronidazole adverse effect:
    A. Disulfiram-like reaction
    B. Ototoxicity
    C. Nephrotoxicity
    D. Photosensitivity
64. Tinidazole advantage over metronidazole:
    A. Shorter half-life
    B. Better taste
    C. Single-dose therapy
    D. Less absorption
65. Fluconazole is preferred in:
    A. Systemic candidiasis
    B. Dermatophytes
    C. Aspergillosis
    D. Mucormycosis
66. Terbinafine inhibits synthesis of:
    A. Ergosterol
    B. Squalene epoxidase
    C. Chitin
    D. DNA
67. Amphotericin-B adverse effect:
    A. Nephrotoxicity
    B. Hepatotoxicity
    C. Ototoxicity
    D. Cardiotoxicity
68. HAART includes combination of:
    A. Two drugs
    B. Three drugs
    C. One drug
    D. Four drugs
69. Nevirapine causes:
    A. Renal failure
    B. Skin rash
    C. Anemia
    D. Hypoglycemia
70. Protease inhibitors adverse effect:
    A. Lipodystrophy
    B. Ototoxicity
    C. Neuropathy
    D. Hepatomegaly
71. Ganciclovir is used in:
    A. HSV
    B. CMV
    C. HIV
    D. Influenza
72. Interferon-α is used in:
    A. TB
    B. Hepatitis
    C. Malaria
    D. Leprosy
73. Antiviral causing hemolytic anemia:
    A. Acyclovir
    B. Ribavirin
    C. Amantadine
    D. Zidovudine
74. Polymyxin-B is mainly used topically due to:
    A. Low efficacy
    B. High toxicity
    C. Resistance
    D. Poor absorption
75. Antibiotic causing pseudomembranous colitis:
    A. Amoxicillin
    B. Clindamycin
    C. Ciprofloxacin
    D. Gentamicin
76. Spectinomycin MOA:
    A. 30S inhibition
    B. 50S inhibition
    C. DNA damage
    D. Cell wall inhibition
77. DOTS strategy is mainly for:
    A. MDR-TB
    B. Pulmonary TB
    C. Leprosy
    D. Malaria
78. Drug for MDR-TB:
    A. Rifampicin
    B. INH
    C. Linezolid
    D. Ethambutol
79. Antifungal binding to ergosterol:
    A. Ketoconazole
    B. Fluconazole
    C. Amphotericin-B
    D. Griseofulvin
80. Griseofulvin induces:
    A. CYP enzymes
    B. Renal enzymes
    C. GI enzymes
    D. Cardiac enzymes
81. Praziquantel causes paralysis by increasing:
    A. Sodium influx
    B. Potassium efflux
    C. Calcium permeability
    D. Chloride influx
82. Albendazole adverse effect:
    A. Hepatotoxicity
    B. Nephrotoxicity
    C. Ototoxicity
    D. Cardiotoxicity
83. Diloxanide furoate is combined with metronidazole to:
    A. Reduce toxicity
    B. Kill luminal cysts
    C. Increase absorption
    D. Reduce resistance
84. Ciprofloxacin adverse effect:
    A. QT prolongation
    B. Tendinitis
    C. Nephrolithiasis
    D. Hypoglycemia
85. Antibiotic safe in pregnancy:
    A. Tetracycline
    B. Chloramphenicol
    C. Penicillin
    D. Fluoroquinolone

Unit-4: Immunosuppressants & Antineoplastics (Q86–100)

86. Cyclosporine adverse effect:
    A. Bone marrow suppression
    B. Nephrotoxicity
    C. Pulmonary fibrosis
    D. Cardiotoxicity
87. Tacrolimus is more potent than:
    A. Methotrexate
    B. Cyclosporine
    C. Sirolimus
    D. Azathioprine
88. Mycophenolate mofetil inhibits:
    A. Purine synthesis
    B. Pyrimidine synthesis
    C. DNA gyrase
    D. RNA polymerase
89. Sirolimus differs from cyclosporine by inhibiting:
    A. Calcineurin
    B. mTOR
    C. DNA synthesis
    D. Cytokines
90. Methotrexate rescue is done with:
    A. Folic acid
    B. Leucovorin
    C. Vitamin B12
    D. Riboflavin
91. Cyclophosphamide metabolite causing cystitis:
    A. Acrolein
    B. Urea
    C. Ammonia
    D. Formaldehyde
92. Mesna prevents:
    A. Nephrotoxicity
    B. Cardiotoxicity
    C. Hemorrhagic cystitis
    D. Myelosuppression
93. Vinblastine adverse effect:
    A. Neurotoxicity
    B. Myelosuppression
    C. Nephrotoxicity
    D. Pulmonary fibrosis
94. Taxanes act by:
    A. Inhibiting DNA synthesis
    B. Stabilizing microtubules
    C. Blocking ribosomes
    D. Alkylation
95. Doxorubicin cardiotoxicity is prevented by:
    A. Mesna
    B. Dexrazoxane
    C. Leucovorin
    D. Amifostine
96. Bleomycin lacks which toxicity:
    A. Pulmonary
    B. Renal
    C. Myelosuppression
    D. Skin
97. Cisplatin causes ototoxicity due to:
    A. Calcium loss
    B. Free radical formation
    C. Sodium retention
    D. Protein binding
98. Carboplatin is less toxic to:
    A. Kidney
    B. Bone marrow
    C. Lung
    D. Heart
99. L-Asparaginase is useful in:
    A. Breast cancer
    B. Leukemia
    C. Lung cancer
    D. Colon cancer
100. Interleukin-2 stimulates:
     A. B-cells
     B. T-cells
     C. Macrophages
     D. Neutrophils

 

ANSWERS

1.(C) Cimetidine, 2.(C) Acidic canaliculi, 3.(B) Constipation, 4.(B) Adsorbing pepsin, 5.(C) Before meals, 6.(C) Methylnaltrexone, 7.(B) IBS-C, 8.(B) Prevent abuse, 9.(C) Decreasing motility, 10.(C) Apomorphine, 11.(C) Hyoscine, 12.(B) D2 receptor, 13.(B) D2 receptor, 14.(B) Cardiac arrhythmia, 15.(B) Drotaverine, 16.(A) Pirenzepine, 17.(B) Magnesium hydroxide, 18.(A) Black stools, 19.(A) Sodium and glucose, 20.(C) Mucosal healing, 21.(B) Lorcaserin, 22.(C) Sodium bicarbonate, 23.(B) Softening stool, 24.(B) Intestinal obstruction, 25.(B) Antibiotics.

26.(B) Calcitonin, 27.(C) Calcium, 28.(C) Peripheral T4 to T3 conversion, 29.(B) PTU, 30.(C) β-cells, 31.(D) All of the above, 32.(B) Flatulence, 33.(A) Hypoglycemia, 34.(B) Fluid retention, 35.(B) Nuclear receptors, 36.(C) Hypertension, 37.(B) Gradually, 38.(C) Salbutamol, 39.(B) Sustained contraction, 40.(B) Relaxing uterus, 41.(B) Hypotension, 42.(B) Sulfonylureas, 43.(B) Metformin, 44.(B) Inhibiting cytokines, 45.(B) Dexamethasone.

46.(A) MRSA, 47.(B) IgE, 48.(B) Pseudomonas, 49.(C) CSF, 50.(B) Liver, 51.(C) Degradation, 52.(A) Better renal safety, 53.(B) Anaerobes, 54.(A) MRSA, 55.(B) Protein initiation, 56.(C) Cartilage damage, 57.(B) Rifampicin, 58.(B) Psychosis, 59.(B) Rifampicin, 60.(C) Thalidomide, 61.(A) Paralysis of worms, 62.(A) Albendazole, 63.(A) Disulfiram-like reaction, 64.(C) Single-dose therapy, 65.(A) Systemic candidiasis, 66.(B) Squalene epoxidase, 67.(A) Nephrotoxicity, 68.(B) Three drugs, 69.(B) Skin rash, 70.(A) Lipodystrophy, 71.(B) CMV, 72.(B) Hepatitis, 73.(B) Ribavirin, 74.(B) High toxicity, 75.(B) Clindamycin, 76.(A) 30S inhibition, 77.(B) Pulmonary TB, 78.(C) Linezolid, 79.(C) Amphotericin-B, 80.(A) CYP enzymes, 81.(C) Calcium permeability, 82.(A) Hepatotoxicity, 83.(B) Kill luminal cysts, 84.(B) Tendinitis, 85.(C) Penicillin.

86.(B) Nephrotoxicity, 87.(B) Cyclosporine, 88.(A) Purine synthesis, 89.(B) mTOR, 90.(B) Leucovorin, 91.(A) Acrolein, 92.(C) Hemorrhagic cystitis, 93.(B) Myelosuppression, 94.(B) Stabilizing microtubules, 95.(B) Dexrazoxane, 96.(C) Myelosuppression, 97.(B) Free radical formation, 98.(A) Kidney, 99.(B) Leukemia, 100.(B) T-cells.

                                                         END OF THE DOCUMENT

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