List of 100 MCQs from Pharmacology – III for Practice with Answers

List of 100 MCQs from Pharmacology-III for Practice with Answers

Unit-1: Drugs Acting on GIT (Q1–25)

Which H₂ blocker has maximum drug interaction potential?
A. Famotidine
B. Ranitidine
C. Cimetidine
D. Nizatidine
Proton pump inhibitors are prodrugs activated in:
A. Blood
B. Liver
C. Acidic canaliculi
D. Intestine
Aluminium hydroxide commonly causes:
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Acid rebound
D. Hypercalcemia
Magnesium trisilicate acts mainly by:
A. Neutralizing acid
B. Adsorbing pepsin
C. Reducing motility
D. Forming gel
Sucralfate is best administered:
A. With meals
B. After meals
C. Before meals
D. At bedtime only
Drug used for opioid-induced constipation:
A. Senna
B. Lactulose
C. Methylnaltrexone
D. Ispaghula
Tegaserod is useful in:
A. IBS-D
B. IBS-C
C. Peptic ulcer
D. GERD
Diphenoxylate should be combined with atropine to:
A. Increase efficacy
B. Prevent abuse
C. Reduce constipation
D. Enhance absorption
Codeine reduces diarrhea by:
A. Antisecretory effect
B. Increasing absorption
C. Decreasing motility
D. Killing bacteria
Drug acting on vomiting center directly:
A. Ondansetron
B. Metoclopramide
C. Apomorphine
D. Hyoscine
Antiemetic useful in motion sickness:
A. Metoclopramide
B. Ondansetron
C. Hyoscine
D. Domperidone
Prochlorperazine blocks:
A. H1 receptor
B. D2 receptor
C. M receptor
D. 5-HT4 receptor
Domperidone causes hyperprolactinemia by blocking:
A. H1
B. D2
C. M3
D. 5-HT3
Cisapride was withdrawn due to:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Cardiac arrhythmia
C. Renal failure
D. CNS toxicity
Antispasmodic with PDE inhibition:
A. Dicyclomine
B. Drotaverine
C. Hyoscine
D. Propantheline
Drug reducing acid secretion by M1 blockade:
A. Pirenzepine
B. Atropine
C. Ranitidine
D. Famotidine
Antacid contraindicated in renal failure:
A. Aluminium hydroxide
B. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Sodium bicarbonate
Colloidal bismuth subcitrate adverse effect:
A. Black stools
B. Constipation
C. Diarrhea
D. Hypocalcemia
ORS works by enhancing absorption of:
A. Sodium and glucose
B. Potassium only
C. Chloride only
D. Water only
Zinc reduces diarrhea by improving:
A. Appetite
B. Immunity
C. Mucosal healing
D. Motility
Appetite suppressant example:
A. Cyproheptadine
B. Lorcaserin
C. Metoclopramide
D. Ondansetron
Antacid with CO₂ release:
A. Aluminium hydroxide
B. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Magaldrate
Lubricant laxative works by:
A. Increasing water retention
B. Softening stool
C. Stimulating colon
D. Increasing bulk
Bulk laxatives are contraindicated in:
A. IBS
B. Intestinal obstruction
C. Pregnancy
D. Diabetes
Probiotics are useful in diarrhea caused by:
A. Viruses
B. Antibiotics
C. Parasites
D. Food poisoning

Unit-2: Endocrine Drugs (Q26–45)

Hormone regulating calcium homeostasis:
A. Thyroxine
B. Calcitonin
C. Cortisol
D. Aldosterone
Vitamin D increases absorption of:
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Chloride
PTU differs from carbimazole by inhibiting:
A. Iodide uptake
B. Hormone release
C. Peripheral T4 to T3 conversion
D. Thyroid destruction
Drug used in thyroid storm:
A. Carbimazole
B. PTU
C. Levothyroxine
D. Radioiodine
Sulfonylureas require functioning:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. β-cells
D. Muscle
Metformin causes lactic acidosis in:
A. Liver disease
B. Renal failure
C. Heart failure
D. All of the above
Acarbose adverse effect:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Flatulence
C. Weight gain
D. Edema
DPP-4 inhibitors do NOT cause:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Weight neutrality
C. Increased insulin
D. Reduced glucagon
Thiazolidinediones cause:
A. Weight loss
B. Fluid retention
C. Hypoglycemia
D. GI upset
Corticosteroids act via:
A. Membrane receptors
B. Nuclear receptors
C. Ion channels
D. Enzyme inhibition
Mineralocorticoid adverse effect:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypertension
D. Hypotension
Long-term steroid therapy should be stopped:
A. Abruptly
B. Gradually
C. After meals
D. At night
Drug used for preterm labor suppression:
A. Oxytocin
B. Ergometrine
C. Salbutamol
D. Misoprostol
Ergometrine causes:
A. Uterine relaxation
B. Sustained contraction
C. Cervical dilation
D. Uterine atony
Progesterone helps in pregnancy by:
A. Contracting uterus
B. Relaxing uterus
C. Increasing oxytocin
D. Reducing estrogen
ACTH deficiency causes:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypotension
C. Obesity
D. Cushing syndrome
Repaglinide has shorter action than:
A. Metformin
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Acarbose
D. Pioglitazone
Insulin sensitizer drug:
A. Glimepiride
B. Metformin
C. Acarbose
D. Sitagliptin
Corticosteroids suppress immunity by:
A. Increasing antibodies
B. Inhibiting cytokines
C. Increasing macrophages
D. Enhancing T-cells
Drug causing adrenal suppression:
A. Hydrocortisone
B. Dexamethasone
C. Fludrocortisone
D. Aldosterone

Unit-3: Antimicrobials (Q46–85)

Antibiotic resistance due to altered target site occurs in:
A. MRSA
B. E. coli
C. Pseudomonas
D. Klebsiella
Penicillin allergy is mediated by:
A. IgG
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgA
Piperacillin is effective against:
A. Streptococcus
B. Pseudomonas
C. Mycoplasma
D. Chlamydia
Third generation cephalosporins penetrate:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. CSF
D. Bone
Ceftriaxone is eliminated mainly by:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Skin
Imipenem is combined with cilastatin to prevent:
A. Resistance
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Degradation
D. Allergy
Doxycycline advantage over tetracycline:
A. Better renal safety
B. More GI upset
C. Shorter half-life
D. Less absorption
Aminoglycosides are ineffective against:
A. Aerobes
B. Anaerobes
C. Gram negatives
D. Mycobacteria
Vancomycin is drug of choice for:
A. MRSA
B. TB
C. Syphilis
D. Malaria
Linezolid acts by inhibiting:
A. DNA synthesis
B. Protein initiation
C. Cell wall synthesis
D. RNA polymerase
Quinolones are contraindicated in children due to:
A. CNS toxicity
B. Tendon damage
C. Cartilage damage
D. Hepatotoxicity
Antitubercular drug causing hepatotoxicity:
A. Ethambutol
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin
D. Cycloserine
Cycloserine adverse effect:
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Psychosis
C. Optic neuritis
D. Deafness
Drug causing orange discoloration of body fluids:
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. PAS
D. Ethambutol
Leprosy reaction type-2 is treated with:
A. Dapsone
B. Clofazimine
C. Thalidomide
D. Rifampicin
Pyrantel pamoate acts by:
A. Paralysis of worms
B. Killing eggs
C. Blocking glucose uptake
D. Increasing motility
Drug of choice for hookworm:
A. Albendazole
B. Niclosamide
C. Praziquantel
D. Piperazine
Metronidazole adverse effect:
A. Disulfiram-like reaction
B. Ototoxicity
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Photosensitivity
Tinidazole advantage over metronidazole:
A. Shorter half-life
B. Better taste
C. Single-dose therapy
D. Less absorption
Fluconazole is preferred in:
A. Systemic candidiasis
B. Dermatophytes
C. Aspergillosis
D. Mucormycosis
Terbinafine inhibits synthesis of:
A. Ergosterol
B. Squalene epoxidase
C. Chitin
D. DNA
Amphotericin-B adverse effect:
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Ototoxicity
D. Cardiotoxicity
HAART includes combination of:
A. Two drugs
B. Three drugs
C. One drug
D. Four drugs
Nevirapine causes:
A. Renal failure
B. Skin rash
C. Anemia
D. Hypoglycemia
Protease inhibitors adverse effect:
A. Lipodystrophy
B. Ototoxicity
C. Neuropathy
D. Hepatomegaly
Ganciclovir is used in:
A. HSV
B. CMV
C. HIV
D. Influenza
Interferon-α is used in:
A. TB
B. Hepatitis
C. Malaria
D. Leprosy
Antiviral causing hemolytic anemia:
A. Acyclovir
B. Ribavirin
C. Amantadine
D. Zidovudine
Polymyxin-B is mainly used topically due to:
A. Low efficacy
B. High toxicity
C. Resistance
D. Poor absorption
Antibiotic causing pseudomembranous colitis:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Clindamycin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Gentamicin
Spectinomycin MOA:
A. 30S inhibition
B. 50S inhibition
C. DNA damage
D. Cell wall inhibition
DOTS strategy is mainly for:
A. MDR-TB
B. Pulmonary TB
C. Leprosy
D. Malaria
Drug for MDR-TB:
A. Rifampicin
B. INH
C. Linezolid
D. Ethambutol
Antifungal binding to ergosterol:
A. Ketoconazole
B. Fluconazole
C. Amphotericin-B
D. Griseofulvin
Griseofulvin induces:
A. CYP enzymes
B. Renal enzymes
C. GI enzymes
D. Cardiac enzymes
Praziquantel causes paralysis by increasing:
A. Sodium influx
B. Potassium efflux
C. Calcium permeability
D. Chloride influx
Albendazole adverse effect:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Ototoxicity
D. Cardiotoxicity
Diloxanide furoate is combined with metronidazole to:
A. Reduce toxicity
B. Kill luminal cysts
C. Increase absorption
D. Reduce resistance
Ciprofloxacin adverse effect:
A. QT prolongation
B. Tendinitis
C. Nephrolithiasis
D. Hypoglycemia
Antibiotic safe in pregnancy:
A. Tetracycline
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Penicillin
D. Fluoroquinolone

Unit-4: Immunosuppressants & Antineoplastics (Q86–100)

Cyclosporine adverse effect:
A. Bone marrow suppression
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Cardiotoxicity
Tacrolimus is more potent than:
A. Methotrexate
B. Cyclosporine
C. Sirolimus
D. Azathioprine
Mycophenolate mofetil inhibits:
A. Purine synthesis
B. Pyrimidine synthesis
C. DNA gyrase
D. RNA polymerase
Sirolimus differs from cyclosporine by inhibiting:
A. Calcineurin
B. mTOR
C. DNA synthesis
D. Cytokines
Methotrexate rescue is done with:
A. Folic acid
B. Leucovorin
C. Vitamin B12
D. Riboflavin
Cyclophosphamide metabolite causing cystitis:
A. Acrolein
B. Urea
C. Ammonia
D. Formaldehyde
Mesna prevents:
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Cardiotoxicity
C. Hemorrhagic cystitis
D. Myelosuppression
Vinblastine adverse effect:
A. Neurotoxicity
B. Myelosuppression
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Pulmonary fibrosis
Taxanes act by:
A. Inhibiting DNA synthesis
B. Stabilizing microtubules
C. Blocking ribosomes
D. Alkylation
Doxorubicin cardiotoxicity is prevented by:
A. Mesna
B. Dexrazoxane
C. Leucovorin
D. Amifostine
Bleomycin lacks which toxicity:
A. Pulmonary
B. Renal
C. Myelosuppression
D. Skin
Cisplatin causes ototoxicity due to:
A. Calcium loss
B. Free radical formation
C. Sodium retention
D. Protein binding
Carboplatin is less toxic to:
A. Kidney
B. Bone marrow
C. Lung
D. Heart
L-Asparaginase is useful in:
A. Breast cancer
B. Leukemia
C. Lung cancer
D. Colon cancer
Interleukin-2 stimulates:
A. B-cells
B. T-cells
C. Macrophages
D. Neutrophils

ANSWERS

1.(C) Cimetidine, 2.(C) Acidic canaliculi, 3.(B) Constipation, 4.(B) Adsorbing pepsin, 5.(C) Before meals, 6.(C) Methylnaltrexone, 7.(B) IBS-C, 8.(B) Prevent abuse, 9.(C) Decreasing motility, 10.(C) Apomorphine, 11.(C) Hyoscine, 12.(B) D2 receptor, 13.(B) D2 receptor, 14.(B) Cardiac arrhythmia, 15.(B) Drotaverine, 16.(A) Pirenzepine, 17.(B) Magnesium hydroxide, 18.(A) Black stools, 19.(A) Sodium and glucose, 20.(C) Mucosal healing, 21.(B) Lorcaserin, 22.(C) Sodium bicarbonate, 23.(B) Softening stool, 24.(B) Intestinal obstruction, 25.(B) Antibiotics.

26.(B) Calcitonin, 27.(C) Calcium, 28.(C) Peripheral T4 to T3 conversion, 29.(B) PTU, 30.(C) β-cells, 31.(D) All of the above, 32.(B) Flatulence, 33.(A) Hypoglycemia, 34.(B) Fluid retention, 35.(B) Nuclear receptors, 36.(C) Hypertension, 37.(B) Gradually, 38.(C) Salbutamol, 39.(B) Sustained contraction, 40.(B) Relaxing uterus, 41.(B) Hypotension, 42.(B) Sulfonylureas, 43.(B) Metformin, 44.(B) Inhibiting cytokines, 45.(B) Dexamethasone.

46.(A) MRSA, 47.(B) IgE, 48.(B) Pseudomonas, 49.(C) CSF, 50.(B) Liver, 51.(C) Degradation, 52.(A) Better renal safety, 53.(B) Anaerobes, 54.(A) MRSA, 55.(B) Protein initiation, 56.(C) Cartilage damage, 57.(B) Rifampicin, 58.(B) Psychosis, 59.(B) Rifampicin, 60.(C) Thalidomide, 61.(A) Paralysis of worms, 62.(A) Albendazole, 63.(A) Disulfiram-like reaction, 64.(C) Single-dose therapy, 65.(A) Systemic candidiasis, 66.(B) Squalene epoxidase, 67.(A) Nephrotoxicity, 68.(B) Three drugs, 69.(B) Skin rash, 70.(A) Lipodystrophy, 71.(B) CMV, 72.(B) Hepatitis, 73.(B) Ribavirin, 74.(B) High toxicity, 75.(B) Clindamycin, 76.(A) 30S inhibition, 77.(B) Pulmonary TB, 78.(C) Linezolid, 79.(C) Amphotericin-B, 80.(A) CYP enzymes, 81.(C) Calcium permeability, 82.(A) Hepatotoxicity, 83.(B) Kill luminal cysts, 84.(B) Tendinitis, 85.(C) Penicillin.

86.(B) Nephrotoxicity, 87.(B) Cyclosporine, 88.(A) Purine synthesis, 89.(B) mTOR, 90.(B) Leucovorin, 91.(A) Acrolein, 92.(C) Hemorrhagic cystitis, 93.(B) Myelosuppression, 94.(B) Stabilizing microtubules, 95.(B) Dexrazoxane, 96.(C) Myelosuppression, 97.(B) Free radical formation, 98.(A) Kidney, 99.(B) Leukemia, 100.(B) T-cells.

END OF THE DOCUMENT

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