List of 200 MCQs from Pharmacology – III for Practice with Answers

List of 200 MCQs from Pharmacology – III for Practice

UNIT–1: Drugs Acting on GIT (MCQs 1–25)

1. Which drug irreversibly inhibits H⁺/K⁺ ATPase?
A. Ranitidine
B. Famotidine
C. Omeprazole
D. Cimetidine

2. Misoprostol is a synthetic analogue of:
A. Prostaglandin E1
B. Prostaglandin E2
C. Prostaglandin F2α
D. Thromboxane

3. Which antacid is systemic?
A. Aluminium hydroxide
B. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Magaldrate

4. Sucralfate acts mainly by:
A. Neutralizing acid
B. Inhibiting proton pump
C. Forming protective barrier
D. Inhibiting H2 receptor
Answer: C

5. Drug of choice for H. pylori eradication includes:
A. Omeprazole + Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin
B. Ranitidine + Metronidazole
C. Sucralfate + Antacid
D. Misoprostol alone

6. Bulk forming laxative is:
A. Bisacodyl
B. Senna
C. Ispaghula
D. Lactulose

7. Lactulose acts as:
A. Stimulant laxative
B. Osmotic laxative
C. Bulk laxative
D. Lubricant

8. Drug used as stool softener:
A. Liquid paraffin
B. Senna
C. Tegaserod
D. Bisacodyl

9. ORS mainly corrects:
A. Acid secretion
B. Electrolyte imbalance
C. Motility
D. Infection

10. Zinc in diarrhea reduces:
A. Vomiting
B. Duration and severity
C. Constipation
D. Acid secretion

11. Loperamide acts by:
A. μ-opioid receptor activation
B. Dopamine antagonism
C. Anticholinergic action
D. 5-HT3 blockade

12. Ipecac syrup is used as:
A. Antiemetic
B. Emetic
C. Prokinetic
D. Antispasmodic

13. Apomorphine induces vomiting by acting on:
A. GI tract
B. Chemoreceptor trigger zone
C. Vestibular apparatus
D. Cortex

14. Ondansetron blocks:
A. D2 receptors
B. H1 receptors
C. 5-HT3 receptors
D. M receptors

15. Metoclopramide is:
A. H2 blocker
B. Proton pump inhibitor
C. Prokinetic
D. Antacid

16. Dicyclomine is used as:
A. Laxative
B. Antiemetic
C. Antispasmodic
D. Prokinetic

17. Hyoscine is classified as:
A. Anticholinergic
B. Antihistamine
C. Dopamine antagonist
D. Opioid

18. Promethazine belongs to:
A. H2 antihistamine
B. H1 antihistamine
C. Antacid
D. PPI

19. Domperidone causes fewer CNS effects because it:
A. Is rapidly metabolized
B. Does not cross BBB
C. Has short half-life
D. Is weak D2 blocker

20. Tegaserod is a:
A. 5-HT4 agonist
B. 5-HT3 antagonist
C. D2 blocker
D. M receptor antagonist

21. Antacid causing acid rebound:
A. Aluminium hydroxide
B. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Magaldrate

22. Bismuth compounds act by:
A. Killing H. pylori
B. Acid suppression
C. Laxative action
D. Anti-motility

23. Probiotics mainly restore:
A. Acid secretion
B. Normal gut flora
C. Motility
D. Appetite

24. Appetite stimulant example:
A. Cyproheptadine
B. Metoclopramide
C. Loperamide
D. Ondansetron

25. Castor oil is classified as:
A. Bulk laxative
B. Osmotic laxative
C. Stimulant purgative
D. Stool softener

UNIT–2: Endocrine Pharmacology (MCQs 26–45)

26. PTU inhibits:
A. Peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
B. TSH release
C. Thyroid hormone binding
D. Iodide uptake only

27. Carbimazole is a:
A. Thioamide
B. Iodide
C. Radioactive agent
D. Beta blocker

28. Radioactive iodine is contraindicated in:
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Goiter
C. Pregnancy
D. Thyroid cancer

29. Metformin decreases glucose by:
A. Increasing insulin release
B. Reducing gluconeogenesis
C. Blocking α-glucosidase
D. Activating PPAR-γ

30. Sulfonylureas act by:
A. Increasing insulin sensitivity
B. Closing K⁺ channels
C. Inhibiting glucose absorption
D. Decreasing insulin degradation

31. Drug causing hypoglycemia most commonly:
A. Metformin
B. Acarbose
C. Glibenclamide
D. Pioglitazone

32. Rosiglitazone activates:
A. PPAR-α
B. PPAR-β
C. PPAR-γ
D. AMPK

33. Sitagliptin inhibits:
A. DPP-4
B. α-glucosidase
C. Insulinase
D. Glucagon

34. Corticosteroid causing sodium retention:
A. Dexamethasone
B. Prednisolone
C. Fludrocortisone
D. Betamethasone

35. Long acting glucocorticoid:
A. Hydrocortisone
B. Prednisolone
C. Dexamethasone
D. Cortisone

36. Oxytocin causes:
A. Uterine relaxation
B. Uterine contraction
C. Cervical dilation only
D. Inhibition of labor

37. Misoprostol is used for:
A. Tocolysis
B. Induction of labor
C. Suppressing lactation
D. Uterine relaxation

38. Salbutamol relaxes uterus by:
A. α-agonism
B. β2-agonism
C. Calcium blockade
D. Progesterone effect

39. Nifedipine relaxes uterus by:
A. β-blockade
B. Calcium channel blockade
C. Prostaglandin inhibition
D. Oxytocin antagonism

40. Estrogens mainly cause:
A. Endometrial atrophy
B. Endometrial proliferation
C. Ovulation inhibition
D. Uterine relaxation

41. ACTH stimulates:
A. Thyroid cortex
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Pituitary gland

42. DPP-4 inhibitors increase:
A. Insulin resistance
B. Incretin levels
C. Glucagon secretion
D. Lipolysis

43. Adverse effect of corticosteroids:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Weight loss
D. Hypotension

44. Meglitinides act similar to:
A. Biguanides
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Thiazolidinediones
D. α-glucosidase inhibitors

45. Drug used for uterine atony:
A. Isoxsuprine
B. Oxytocin
C. Salbutamol
D. Nifedipine

UNIT–3: Antimicrobials (MCQs 46–85)

46. β-lactam antibiotics inhibit:
A. Protein synthesis
B. DNA synthesis
C. Cell wall synthesis
D. RNA synthesis

47. Resistance to penicillin occurs due to:
A. Efflux pumps
B. β-lactamase
C. Ribosomal mutation
D. Reduced permeability

48. Amoxicillin has better oral absorption than:
A. Penicillin G
B. Ampicillin
C. Cloxacillin
D. Piperacillin

49. Clavulanic acid is a:
A. Antibiotic
B. β-lactamase inhibitor
C. Sulfonamide
D. Antifungal

50. Cephalosporins are ineffective against:
A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Gram negative bacteria
C. Mycoplasma
D. Streptococcus

51. Drug of choice for typhoid:
A. Ampicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Penicillin G
D. Vancomycin

52. Tetracycline causes discoloration of teeth due to:
A. Chelation with calcium
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Renal toxicity
D. CNS depression

53. Chloramphenicol adverse effect:
A. Ototoxicity
B. Gray baby syndrome
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Tendinitis

54. Aminoglycosides cause:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Cardiotoxicity
D. Neurotoxicity

55. Vancomycin adverse effect:
A. Red man syndrome
B. Gray baby syndrome
C. Stevens-Johnson
D. Photosensitivity

56. Macrolides inhibit:
A. 30S ribosome
B. 50S ribosome
C. DNA gyrase
D. Cell wall

57. Ciprofloxacin inhibits:
A. Topoisomerase II
B. RNA polymerase
C. Ribosomes
D. Cell wall

58. Antitubercular drug causing optic neuritis:
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide

59. INH adverse effect prevented by:
A. Vitamin B12
B. Pyridoxine
C. Vitamin C
D. Folate
Answer: B

60. Rifampicin induces:
A. CYP inhibition
B. CYP induction
C. Renal failure
D. Bone marrow suppression

61. Drug causing red discoloration of urine:
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethambutol
D. PAS

62. MDT for leprosy includes:
A. INH + Rifampicin
B. Dapsone + Clofazimine + Rifampicin
C. Ethambutol + PAS
D. Pyrazinamide + INH

63. Albendazole acts by:
A. Blocking microtubules
B. Inhibiting glucose uptake
C. Increasing Ca²⁺ permeability
D. Paralysis

64. Drug for hydatid disease:
A. Niclosamide
B. Albendazole
C. Piperazine
D. Pyrantel

65. Metronidazole is effective against:
A. Aerobes
B. Anaerobes
C. Fungi
D. Viruses

66. Diloxanide furoate is:
A. Tissue amoebicide
B. Luminal amoebicide
C. Systemic antifungal
D. Anthelmintic

67. Amphotericin-B acts by:
A. Inhibiting ergosterol synthesis
B. Binding to ergosterol
C. DNA inhibition
D. Cell wall inhibition

68. Ketoconazole inhibits:
A. DNA synthesis
B. Protein synthesis
C. Ergosterol synthesis
D. Cell wall synthesis

69. Griseofulvin is used for:
A. Systemic candidiasis
B. Dermatophytosis
C. Malaria
D. Leprosy

70. Acyclovir acts by inhibiting:
A. Viral RNA polymerase
B. Viral DNA polymerase
C. Viral protease
D. Viral entry

71. Zidovudine is:
A. Protease inhibitor
B. NNRTI
C. NRTI
D. Integrase inhibitor

72. Efavirenz is:
A. NRTI
B. NNRTI
C. Protease inhibitor
D. Fusion inhibitor

73. Indinavir inhibits:
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. Protease
C. Integrase
D. Fusion

74. Enfuvirtide inhibits:
A. Viral fusion
B. Protease
C. Polymerase
D. Integrase

75. Amantadine is used in:
A. HIV
B. Influenza A
C. Herpes
D. Hepatitis

76. Polymyxin-B causes:
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Neurotoxicity
D. All of the above

77. Clindamycin adverse effect:
A. C. difficile colitis
B. Ototoxicity
C. Photosensitivity
D. Hypoglycemia

78. Spectinomycin is used in:
A. TB
B. Gonorrhea
C. Leprosy
D. Malaria

79. DOTS stands for:
A. Direct Oral TB Strategy
B. Directly Observed Treatment Short-course
C. Drug Observed Therapy
D. Disease Oriented TB System

80. PAS is:
A. First line drug
B. Second line drug
C. Antifungal
D. Antiviral

81. Streptomycin causes:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Cardiotoxicity
D. Myelosuppression

82. Fluconazole has good:
A. Oral bioavailability
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Ototoxicity
D. CNS toxicity

83. Luliconazole is used topically for:
A. Bacterial infections
B. Dermatophytosis
C. Viral infections
D. Protozoal infections

84. Praziquantel is drug of choice for:
A. Hookworm
B. Roundworm
C. Schistosomiasis
D. Enterobiasis

85. Quinolones cause adverse effect on:
A. Tendons
B. Liver
C. Brain
D. Pancreas

UNIT–4: Immunosuppressants & Antineoplastics (MCQs 86–100)

86. Cyclosporine inhibits:
A. DNA synthesis
B. Calcineurin
C. mTOR
D. Tubulin

87. Tacrolimus is similar to:
A. Methotrexate
B. Cyclosporine
C. Azathioprine
D. MMF

88. Azathioprine inhibits:
A. Purine synthesis
B. Pyrimidine synthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. RNA synthesis

89. Methotrexate inhibits:
A. DHFR
B. DNA gyrase
C. RNA polymerase
D. Protease

90. Sirolimus inhibits:
A. Calcineurin
B. mTOR
C. DNA synthesis
D. Protein synthesis

91. Muromonab CD3 is:
A. Monoclonal antibody
B. Cytotoxic drug
C. Alkylating agent
D. Antimetabolite

92. BCG is used as:
A. Immunosuppressant
B. Immunostimulant
C. Antibiotic
D. Antiviral

93. Cyclophosphamide belongs to:
A. Antimetabolites
B. Alkylating agents
C. Vinca alkaloids
D. Antibiotics

94. Vincristine inhibits:
A. DNA synthesis
B. RNA synthesis
C. Microtubule formation
D. Protein synthesis

95. Paclitaxel stabilizes:
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Microtubules
D. Ribosomes

96. Doxorubicin adverse effect:
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Cardiotoxicity
C. Neurotoxicity
D. Ototoxicity

97. Bleomycin causes:
A. Cardiotoxicity
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Nephrotoxicity

98. Cisplatin adverse effect:
A. Myelosuppression
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Hypoglycemia

99. L-Asparaginase works by:
A. DNA damage
B. Depleting asparagine
C. Alkylation
D. Tubulin inhibition

100. Etoposide inhibits:
A. DNA gyrase
B. Topoisomerase II
C. DHFR
D. Protease

Answers

1.(C) Omeprazole, 2.(A) Prostaglandin E1, 3.(C) Sodium bicarbonate, 4.(C) Forming protective barrier, 5.(A) Omeprazole + Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin, 6.(C) Ispaghula, 7.(B) Osmotic laxative, 8.(A) Liquid paraffin, 9.(B) Electrolyte imbalance, 10.(B) Duration and severity, 11.(A) μ-opioid receptor activation, 12.(B) Emetic, 13.(B) Chemoreceptor trigger zone, 14.(C) 5-HT3 receptors, 15.(C) Prokinetic, 16.(C) Antispasmodic, 17.(A) Anticholinergic, 18.(B) H1 antihistamine, 19.(B) Does not cross blood–brain barrier, 20.(A) 5-HT4 agonist, 21.(C) Sodium bicarbonate, 22.(A) Killing H. pylori, 23.(B) Restoration of normal gut flora, 24.(A) Cyproheptadine, 25.(C) Stimulant purgative.

26.(A) Inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3, 27.(A) Thioamide, 28.(C) Pregnancy, 29.(B) Reduction of gluconeogenesis, 30.(B) Closing potassium channels, 31.(C) Glibenclamide, 32.(C) PPAR-γ activation, 33.(A) DPP-4 inhibition, 34.(C) Fludrocortisone, 35.(C) Dexamethasone, 36.(B) Uterine contraction, 37.(B) Induction of labor, 38.(B) β2-agonism, 39.(B) Calcium channel blockade, 40.(B) Endometrial proliferation, 41.(B) Adrenal cortex stimulation, 42.(B) Increased incretin levels, 43.(B) Osteoporosis, 44.(B) Sulfonylureas, 45.(B) Oxytocin.

46.(C) Cell wall synthesis inhibition, 47.(B) β-lactamase production, 48.(B) Ampicillin, 49.(B) β-lactamase inhibitor, 50.(C) Mycoplasma, 51.(B) Ciprofloxacin, 52.(A) Chelation with calcium, 53.(B) Gray baby syndrome, 54.(B) Ototoxicity, 55.(A) Red man syndrome, 56.(B) 50S ribosomal inhibition, 57.(A) Topoisomerase II inhibition, 58.(C) Ethambutol, 59.(B) Pyridoxine, 60.(B) Cytochrome P450 enzyme induction, 61.(B) Rifampicin, 62.(B) Dapsone + Clofazimine + Rifampicin, 63.(B) Inhibition of glucose uptake, 64.(B) Albendazole, 65.(B) Anaerobic bacteria, 66.(B) Luminal amoebicide, 67.(B) Binding to ergosterol, 68.(C) Ergosterol synthesis inhibition, 69.(B) Dermatophytosis, 70.(B) Viral DNA polymerase inhibition, 71.(C) NRTI, 72.(B) NNRTI, 73.(B) Protease inhibition, 74.(A) Viral fusion inhibition, 75.(B) Influenza A, 76.(D) Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity and neurotoxicity, 77.(A) Clostridium difficile colitis, 78.(B) Gonorrhea, 79.(B) Directly Observed Treatment Short-course, 80.(B) Second-line antitubercular drug, 81.(B) Ototoxicity, 82.(A) Good oral bioavailability, 83.(B) Dermatophytosis, 84.(C) Schistosomiasis, 85.(A) Tendon damage.

86.(B) Calcineurin inhibition, 87.(B) Cyclosporine, 88.(A) Purine synthesis inhibition, 89.(A) Dihydrofolate reductase inhibition, 90.(B) mTOR inhibition, 91.(A) Monoclonal antibody, 92.(B) Immunostimulant, 93.(B) Alkylating agent, 94.(C) Inhibition of microtubule formation, 95.(C) Stabilization of microtubules, 96.(B) Cardiotoxicity, 97.(B) Pulmonary fibrosis, 98.(B) Nephrotoxicity, 99.(B) Depletion of asparagine, 100.(B) Topoisomerase II inhibition.

List of 100 MCQs from Pharmacology – III for Practice with Answers

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